Q1 -- A 30-year old HIV positive patient comes to your office for the removal of an abscessed second molar. You should:
A. Refer him to another dentist because your infection control procedures are inappropriate for this type of condition.
B. Treat him at the end of the day.
C. Treat him in the same way you treat all your other patients.
D. Double glove before starting any surgical procedures.
答案: C
解題關鍵:
有的人不懂答案所以選C。
俺牛得筆選C是經過思考的。 A可以被排除, 因為院感標准是強制性的, 不能作為借口。
B 是可能的, 但是 HIV 的傳染性並不強, 況且這麼做有歧視的嫌疑,在強制性的院感標准下。 D 是個陷阱。
Q2 -- A patient who is a hepatitis B carrier presents for an extraction. The extraction should be delayed and
A. re-booked at the end of the day to allow for appropriate sterilization of the instruments and office.
B. an antibiotic prescribed prophylactically.
C. the patient referred to a hospital dental department.
D. an evaluation for cirrhosis be performed.
答案: D
解題關鍵:
根據 Q1 的解答, 可以排除A。 HBV 是 VIRUS, 排除B。
C 是陷阱, 下面會講到。
D 可以幫助排除出凝血時間過長。
Q3 -- The risk of transmission of Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) is greater than that of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) because HBV is
1. more resistant than HIV.
2. transmissible through saliva.
3. in higher numbers in blood than HIV.
4. autoclave resistant.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. .
Saliva of people with hepatitis B can contain the hepatitis B virus, but in very low concentrations compared with blood. Injections of infected saliva can transmit the virus, so bite injuries can also spread the disease. There are no reports of people getting hepatitis B from mouth contact with infected CPR manikins or mouthpieces of musical instruments.
Q4 -- According to the Canadian Dental Association’s Code of Ethics, a dentist can
A. split the fees with referring dentists.
B. collect the third party payment without requesting the patient's portion.
C. bill an insurance company a higher than usual fee, if it benefits the patient.
D. charge different fees when warranted by clinical conditions.
答案: D
解題關鍵:
規矩是老大訂的。
Q5 -- During a single appointment, a dentist restores a maxillary incisor with two separate Class IV composite resin restorations. Which of the following procedures should be submitted to the patient’s dental insurance provider?
A. Two three surface restorations.
B. Two four surface restorations.
C. One five surface restoration.
D. One six surface restoration.
E. One eight surface restoration.
答案: C
解題關鍵:
誰控制著錢袋？
Q6 -- According to the principles of ethics that are generally accepted in Canada, a dentist may refuse to treat a patient with HIV infection for a specific procedure for the following reason(s).
1. Inadequate experience in the specific procedure.
2. Inadequate knowledge of the specific procedure.
3. Lack of instruments or equipment for this procedure.
4. Infection control procedures that are not designed for infectious patients.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
In designing a removable partial denture, the location of clasps is determined on
a master cast after tooth preparations are completed.
a surveyed diagnostic cast prior to preparation of occlusal rest areas.
the refractory cast.
Which of the following is the most useful test for the diagnosis of a “cracked tooth”?
Biting test.
Visual examination.
Radiographic examination.
Electric pulp test.
Crusted hemorrhagic and ulcerative lesions of the lips in a patient with target-like skin lesions are typical of
lupus erythematosus.
Reiter’s syndrome.
Behçet’s syndrome.
erythema multiforme.
pemphigus vulgaris.
Acetylsalicylic acid has a more profound effect on bleeding than ibuprofen because acetylsalicylic acid
is absorbed more slowly.
dissociates from plasma proteins more rapidly.
binds irreversibly to platelet cyclooxygenase.
modifies two sites on thrombin.
antagonizes vitamin K.
A 10 year old patient with a lateral functional shift due to a maxillary bilateral posterior crossbite
should not be treated until growth is complete.
should be diagnosed in the functional shift position.
requires mandibular arch expansion.
has a centric occlusion-centric relation (CO-CR) shift caused by occlusal interferences.
In drug synergism, a drug
acts in conjunction with another drug beneficially.
accumulates in the body at a faster rate than it is destroyed or removed.
is concentrated in the kidneys.
produces active metabolites.
Adrenal corticosteroids
increase heart rate.
cause vasodilation.
increase protein synthesis.
reduce inflammation.
Moistened dentin is prefrerred over dry dentin prior to the application of dentin bonding agents because
curing time is reduced.
the collagen matrix is maintained.
the smear layer is removed by the application of water.
enamel bonding is improved.
Which of the following impression materials is the LEAST flexible when set?
Polyvinyl siloxane.
Condensing silicone.
Polyether.
Polysulfide.
Which of the following processes is NOT active in causing tooth eruption?
Growth of the dentin.
Growth of the root.
Growth of the enamel.
Pressure from periapical tissue.
Abnormal development of the first pharyngeal arch could result in defects in the
zygomatic bones and external ears.
mandible and external nose.
maxilla and muscles of facial expression.
palate and hyoid bone.
The primary objective of periodontal flap surgery in the treatment of periodontitis is to
remove granulation tissue.
provide access for root debridement.
add bone support.
correct gingival architecture.
Methyl methacrylate resins will perform better than composite resins for long span, temporary bridges because of superior
hardness.
fracture toughness.
wear resistance.
dimensional stability
Which of the following will result in splitting of developing roots?
Epithelial diaphragm forms too many lateromedial extensions.
Dental follicle cells migrate into the epithelial diaphragm.
Cementoblasts fail to develop on and stabilize the root’s surface.
Periodontal ligament forms too soon.
A fracture through the angle of the mandible may result in an upward displacement of the proximal fragment. Which of the following groups of muscles produce this movement?
Digastric and geniohyoid.
Masseter, digastric and lateral pterygoid.
Masseter, temporal and lateral pterygoid.
Masseter, temporal and medial pterygoid.
After a tooth surface has been completely cleaned, the new glycoprotein coating which forms on the surface is called
pellicle.
plaque.
materia alba.
biofilm.
A silane coupling agent is used to
control polymerization shrinkage in composite resins.
enhance the bond between a porcelain veneer and the resin cement.
reduce the surface tension when investing a wax pattern.
facilitate the soldering of gold castings.
Lymphatic spread from a carcinoma on the tip of the tongue would initially involve which nodes?
Submandibular.
Submental.
Deep parotid.
Mastoid.
Jugulo-omohyoid.
Which of the following statements concerning the airway is correct?
Sympathetic fibres constrict the bronchioles.
The trachea is membranous posteriorly to accommodate the pulsations of the aorta.
The right primary bronchus forms two secondary bronchi.
An aspirated foreign body would likely fall into the right primary bronchus.
20
Which of the following is an indication for a pulpotomy on a primary tooth?
Radiographic evidence of internal root resorption.
Involvement of interradicular bone with no fistula.
Involvement of interradicular bone with a fistula.
Signs and symptoms of pulpitis.
-----------------------------------------------------
Facial paralysis following an inferior alveolar nerve block is a result of injecting the solution too far
inferiorly.
superiorly.
posteriorly.
anteriorly.
The most efficient cutting instrument used in the root canal is a
barbed broach.
reamer.
k-type file
Hedstrom file.
The condyle of the mandible is unique because
it develops from Meckel\'s cartilage.
both interstitial and appositional bone formation are present.
primary and secondary cartilage growth centres are present.
All afferent impulses from the pulp result in the sensation of
heat.
pain.
proprioception.
cold.
Resective osseous surgery is best suited for periodontal sites with
severe attachment loss.
severe intrabony defects.
teeth with short roots.
early to moderate bone loss.
All of the following are parts of the temporal bone EXCEPT the
mastoid.
hamulus.
tympanic.
zygomatic.
Which of the following may be associated with a fracture of the mandible?
Diplopia.
Malocclusion.
Swelling of the orbit.
Bleeding from the nose.
Each of the following is a side effect of prolonged tetracycline hydrochloride therapy EXCEPT
superinfection.
photosensitivity.
vestibular disturbances.
discoloration of newly forming teeth.
gastrointestinal symptoms (when administered orally).
Oral nitrate is used to treat the symptoms of
hypertension.
angina.
arrhythmia.
tachycardia.
Question 30 of 100 Time remaining: 01:39:28
Pain upon vertical percussion on the incisal edge of an anterior tooth may indicate the possible presence of
chronic pulpitis.
hyperemia.
necrosis.
periradicular periodontitis.
-------------------------------------
Postoperative sensitivity associated with the placement of direct posterior composite resin restorations is most often the result of
polymerization shrinkage.
large particle size of macrofilled composite resins.
inadequate etching of the dentin.
excessive thickness of a glass ionomer base.
Osteoporosis is linked to
low estrogen levels.
high testosterone levels.
low androgen levels.
high progesterones levels.
Coxsackie A virus is the etiologic agent in
papilloma.
herpangina.
verruca vulgaris.
condyloma accunimatum.
In a normally developing occlusion, spaces between primary incisors are called
physiological spaces.
primate spaces.
leeway spaces.
freeway spaces.
Local anesthetic containing epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED for a patient with
Addison’s disease.
congenital methemoglobinemia.
diabetes mellitus.
pseudocholinesterase deficiency.
sulfite sensitivity.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for periodontitis?
Smoking.
Poorly controlled diabetes.
Coronary heart disease.
Poor oral hygiene.
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis most frequently occurs
before age 10.
between l0 and 20 years of age.
between 20 and 30 years of age.
after age 30.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause sedation?
Benzodiazepines.
Barbiturates.
Meperidine.
NSAIDs.
In general anaesthesia, the last part of the CNS (Central Nervous System) to be depressed is the
medulla.
cerebrum.
midbrain.
cerebellum.
spinal cord.
Question 40 of 100 Time remaining: 01:35:25
A periodontal probe should be inserted into the sulcus
parallel to the vertical axis of the tooth.
and angled away from interproximal contacts.
with a firm pushing motion.
with a firm lateral motion.
A patient with new complete dentures complains of a burning sensation in the palate. The most likely area requiring relief is at the
frenum.
post dam.
incisive foramen.
foveae palatinae.
Which of the following statements is true?
A major percentage of radiographically detected proximal radioluccencies in enamel are cavitated.
Caries progression through enamel can take as long as 6 to 8 years.
Caries progression can only be arrested in enamel.
Arrested carious lesions in enamel are softer than intact enamel.
In adult orthodontics, slow progress in molar uprighting is most likely due to
chronic periodontitis.
heavy forces applied.
lack of anchorage control.
occlusal interference.
The diagnostic information for a 10 year old patient with a mildly prognathic mandible, 0mm overjet and 0mm overbite should include
photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs.
family history, photographs, cephalometric and panoramic radiographs.
family history, photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs.
photographs, cephalometric, panoramic and periapical radiographs.
Anaphylactic reactions to penicillin do NOT occur
in patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy.
within minutes after drug administration.
in patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug.
when the drug is administered parenterally.
Gingival response to plaque microorganisms in elderly patients is
exaggerated due to an altered host immune response. ##
exaggerated due to a change in the type of infecting microorganisms.
the same in all ages.
decreased due to an altered host immune response.
Which of the following applies to gutta-percha?
It can be thermoplasticized.
It is a good thermal conductor.
It can be inserted easily into fine canals.
It is soluble in periapical exudate.
The most appropriate treatment for a permanent molar with occlusal caries confined to enamel is a/an
amalgam.
composite resin.
flouride varnish application.
preventive resin restoration.
Question 50 of 100
When compared to permanent teeth, primary teeth have
a greater thickness of enamel.
a greater thickness of dentin.
more prominent cervical constriction.
pulps which are smaller in relation to crown size.
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A 4 year old child presents for an emergency examination. The mother is concerned about white patches on the child’s tongue. The child has no pain, eats and drinks normally and has a history of repeated use of amoxicillin for otitis media. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis.
Geographic tongue.
Candidiasis.
Hairy tongue.
A sign of gingivitis is
bone loss.
progressive attachment loss.
the presence of minimal attached gingiva.
bleeding on probing.
Which drug is indicated for the management of an acute asthmatic attack
Flucticasone (Flonase ®
albutamol.
Triamcinolone.
Budesonide.
In an ideal Class I occlusion, the cusp of which mandibular tooth is in contact with the central fossa of the maxillary second molar?
Mesiobuccal cusp of the first molar.
Distobuccal cusp of the first molar.
Mesiobuccal cusp of the second molar.
Distobuccal cusp of the second molar.
Which of the following diseases may cause an enlargement of the jaws, development of diastemas and/or a poorly fitting denture?
Phantom bone disease.
Rickets.
Paget’s disease.
Osteoporosis.
Hypophosphatasia.
Direct pulp capping of permanent teeth in children under the age of 12 years is most likely to be successful for
teeth that are symptomatic.
necrotic pulps.
teeth with open apices.
pulp exposures 3-5mm in size.
Inflammation involving the bone marrow of the jaw caused by infection from a tooth or the periodontium is called
osteoma.
periostitis.
osteomyelitis.
osteosclerosis.
pericementitis.
Amphetamines
increase mental alertness and decrease fatigue.
have analgestic properties.
have no effect on psychomotor activity.
are useful in controlling arrhythmias. (這個答案很蹊蹺)
When odontoblasts are destroyed as a result of cavity preparation
adjacent fibroblasts differentiate into new odontoblasts.
a permanent defect results in the odontoblast layer.
surrounding odontoblasts are stimulated to divide.
new cells differentiate from pulpal mesenchyme cells.
60 of 100
Which of the following is NOT commonly used by general dentists to treat temporomandibular disorders and bruxism?
Hard acrylic splints.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Corticosteroids.
Muscle relaxants.
--------------------------------------------
Fixed orthodontic appliances provide the following benefit over removable appliances in
3-dimensional control of tooth movement.
improved oral hygiene.
intermittent force application.
the ability to apply lower force levels to the teeth.
Naloxone reverses respiratory depression caused by
meperidine.
lorazepam.
alcohol.
phenobarbital.
A 16 year old healthy patient has good oral hygiene with minimal plaque and calculus, but severe interproximal attachment loss affecting the first molars and incisors. The most likely diagnosis is localized
chronic gingivitis.
acute gingivitis.
aggressive periodontitis.
chronic periodontitis.
Which of the following drugs are classic antagonists for curare over-dosage?
Anticholinesterases.
Ganglionic stimulants.
Ganglionic blocking agents.
Alpha adrenergic blocking agents.
Beta adrenergic blocking agents.
A 50 year old man, who is a heavy smoker, has developed a barrel chest, has difficulty breathing and has a bluish tinge to his complexion. The most likely diagnosis is
emphysema.
acute upper respiratory infection.
primary cancer of the lung.
cardiac insufficiency.
Ludwig’s angina initially involves a massive infection of the
parapharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces.
submandibular and sublingual regions.
buccal superficial fascial and canine spaces.
maxillary and ethmoidal sinuses.
Which of the following is the most important preventive therapy for an 8 year old living in a non-fluoridated community, with closed contacts in the posterior quadrants and disto-occlusal restorations on all primary first molars?
Daily fluoride tablets.
Fluoride varnish at 2 month intervals.
Daily 0.05% NaF rinses.
Twice daily brushing with fluoride toothpaste.
A patient complains of sensitivity following placement of a conservative posterior composite resin restoration. The most probable cause is
acid etching.
polymerization shrinkage.
unpolymerized resin.
prolonged application of the curing light.
inadequate base thickness.
Excessive flare of the distobuccal cavosurface margin of a Class II amalgam cavity preparation will result in
unsupported enamel at the margin.
weak amalgam at the margin.
poor retention.
poor esthetics.
Question 70 of 100 Time remaining: 01:22:16
In the formulation of composite resins
decreasing filler content increases the modulus of elasticity.
increasing filler content decreases polymerization shrinkage.
increasing filler content increases the degree of conversion.
decreasing filler content increases radiopacity of the restoration.
------------------------------------
The most important factor in stainless steel crown retention in a primary tooth is the
preservation of the coronal bulge.
maintenance of parallelism.
placement of accessory grooves.
insertion of retentive pins.
During dental treatment, a 45 year old male patient complains of a tight constriction of his chest, becomes pale and sweaty, feels nauseous and attempts to vomit. The most likely diagnosis is
pulmonary embolus.
stroke.
pneumonia.
myocardial infarction.
A patient is hit in the right eye with a baseball. Which of the following would indicate a right orbital floor fracture?
Right periorbital edema.
Right periorbital ecchymosis.
Limited upward movement of the right eye.
Premature occlusal contact on the maxillary right.
Which of the following drugs has the strongest antisialagogue properties?
Codeine.
Atropine.
Acetylsalicylic acid.
Ibuprofen.
Penicillin.
The periodontal ligament is constantly remodeled due to the activity of
osteoclasts.
fibroblasts.
macrophages.
mesenchymal cells.
The principal purpose of amalgam trituration is to
coat the alloy particles with mercury.
dissolve all the alloy particles in the mercury.
reduce the size of the crystals as rapidly as they form.
reduce mercury content of the restoration.
Voids on a dental cast could be caused by the high
surface tension of a silicone impression material.
surface tension of an irreversible hydrocolloid.
wettability of the dental stone.
wettability of the impression material.*
The most important advantage of using reinforced zinc-oxide eugenol cement as a temporary restoration is that it
stimulates dentin repair.
occludes dentinal tubules.
desensitizes the pulp.
chelates to tooth structure.
Titanium implants in the oral cavity are CONTRAINDICATED for patients who
are over age 75.
are on thyroid replacement therapy.
have a terminal disease.
have diabetes mellitus (controlled).
80 of 100
Which form of hepatitis does NOT have a known carrier state?
Hepatitis A.
Hepatitis B.
Hepatitis C.
Hepatitis D.
------------------------------------------------
The terminal plane relationship of primary second molars determines the
arch length between permanent second molars.
future anteroposterior positions of permanent first molars.
vertical dimension of the mandible upon eruption of permanent first molars.
amount of leeway space that is available for permanent premolars and canines.
In complete denture contruction, the physiologic rest position
provides a quide to establish the vertical dimension of occlusion.
determines the level of the occlusal plane.
provides a guide for the selection of cusp inclination.
determines the shape of the compensating curve.
is useful to the determination of condylar inclination.
Which of the following is a sign of a severe toxic reaction to ketoconazole?
Jaundice.
Hypertension.
Xerostomia.
Salivary gland swelling.
Renal failure.
The best way for a dentist to ensure efficacy in a disinfection solution is to
make a fresh solution every day.
follow the manufacturer’s instructions.
increase the concentration of the product.
increase the time of contact with the product.
From Type I to Type IV gold alloys there is
an increase in gold content.
no change in the gold content.
a reduction in gold content.
a reduction in platinum content.
Interceptive orthodontic treatment for a skeletal Class II malocclusion due to a retrognathic mandible should
occur at age 6 – 8 years for maximum effect.
involve a reverse pull headgear.
start just prior to the maximum growth rate of the pubertal growth spurt.
involve surgical advancement.
When performing a frenectomy, a minimal amount of anesthetic solution is used to prevent
distortion of the tissues.
sloughing.
secondary bleeding.
irritation.
Which of the following fibre groups are attached to bone?
Apical.
Interradicular.
Transseptal.
Circular.
In comparison to gold alloys, base metal alloy removable partial denture frameworks can be made
more corrosion resistant.
lighter.
more ductile.
with greater casting accuracy.
Question 90 of 100 Time remaining: 01:14:49
Tooth 1.1 has a small fractured mesioincisal corner into dentin. Which of the following is true with respect to the preparation for the restoration?
Pins are usually necessary to achieve adequate retention.
A lingual dovetail is usually required for retention.
An enamel bevel of 1mm is placed where enamel thickness allows.
Dentin coves are the primary form of retention for the restoration.
--------------------------------------------------
Which of the following teeth is most likely to have two roots and two canals?
Maxillary second premolar.
Mandibular second premolar.
Maxillary first premolar.
Mandibular first premolar.
Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the treatment of
leukemia.
hyperthyroidism.
sodium retention.
intestinal parasites.
allergic manifestations.
To initiate caries, bacterial plaque pH must reach
5.4.
5.9.
6.4.
6.9.
What should be the immediate management of an acute anginal episode?
Oral ibuprofen.
Sublingual nitroglycerin.
Subcutaneous epinephrine.
Inhaled salbutamol.
Tooth 3.6 had endodontic treatment completed 10 years ago. It is asymptomatic but a periapical radiograph reveals a 5mm radiolucency associated with the distal root apex. The surrounding soft tissues are within normal limits. The most likely diagnosis for tooth 3.6 is a/an
acute periradicular periodontitis.
acute periradicular abscess.
chronic periradicular periodontitis.
chronic suppurative periradicular periodontitits.
A 2cm, discrete, white lesion of the buccal mucosa has not resolved after elimination of all local irritants. The most appropriate management would be to
cauterize it.
apply toluidine blue staining.
perform an incisional biopsy.
re-examine at 6 month intervals.
refer patient to family physician.
Healing of extraction wounds is sometimes complicated by a condition known as a \"dry socket\". In this condition
no fibrin is formed.
routine use of antibiotics is advised as a prophylactic measure.
a focal osteomyelitis exists in which the clot has disintegrated.
healing is painful but not delayed.
Five minutes after injecting a local anesthetic, a patient experiences a generalized warmth of the face, mouth and upper chest. What is the most likely cause?
Increased blood pressure
Anaphylactic reaction
Nervousness
Vagal shock
Which of the following statements is true regarding endodontically treated teeth?
These teeth are more brittle than teeth with vital pulps due to desiccation.
Fracture of these teeth are usually due to loss of coronal tooth structure.
These teeth require full coverage to prevent fracture.
A post provides strength for these teeth.
For acute dental pain, the daily maximum cumulative dose of acetaminophen is
2400 mg
3200 mg
3600 mg
4000 mg
